National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER) Bhubaneswar Advertisement for Recruitment to the Post of Assistant Per...
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Wednesday, September 22, 2021
National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER) Bhubaneswar
Advertisement for Recruitment to the Post of Assistant Personnel Officer (APO)
Advertisement No.: NISER/RC/2021/NA/02
Date: 14th September 2021 Closing date: 15th November 2021
National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER) Bhubaneswar, has been setup at Jatni in Khurda District of Odisha by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), Government of India as a unique institution of its kind pursuing undergraduate and post-graduate education in sciences combined with frontline research. The campus of NISER at Jatni is spread over a sprawling 300 acres of land on the outskirts of Bhubaneswar. It is a fully residential campus with all modern living amenities including hospital, banking facilities, etc.
NISER invites online applications from the eligible citizens of India for the following post by Direct
Recruitment on regular basis.
Details of Essential Qualification, experience and Age:- Post Code 01: Assistant Personnel Officer (APO)
Essential Qualification: CA (Inter) or ICWA (Inter) or Graduate with minimum 55% marks or
Post Graduate in any discipline from recognized university.
Essential Experience: Eight years of relevant experience in Govt. /Govt. Aided Organizations or Institutions/PSU in the areas of Administration /Establishment /Academics /Legal /Accounts / Finance / Stores / Purchase etc.
Age: Maximum 35 years (OBC-38 years & SC-40 years) as on the closing date of receipt of online application i.e. 15th November 2021.
Job Profile in brief: The candidates are expected to work in the areas of General Administration, Establishment, Academics, Legal, Accounts, Finance, Stores, Purchases, etc of the institute. Institute can also assign any other job as deemed fit or transfer to any other section as and when required.
Benefits for NISER Staff:
• In addition to the basic salary, NISER staff members are entitled to the allowances as admissible to Central Government Employees at present.
Mode of Recruitment:
Written Examination-60% + Interview-40% Computer Skill Test (Qualifying in Nature)
General information about posts advertised:
1. The candidates applying for the said post, must go through the detailed advertisement before applying and ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility criteria for the said post as laid down in the advertisement. If the candidate is found ineligible at any stage of recruitment process, he/she will be disqualified and his/her candidature will be cancelled. Hiding of information or submitting false information will lead to cancellation of candidature at any stage of recruitment. The Institute reserves the right to reject any application without assigning any reason whatsoever.
2. Applicants who are employed in Government, Semi-Government Organizations or Institutions, PSU should send their applications “THROUGH PROPER CHANNEL” else they will be required to produce a “NO OBJECTION CERTIFICATE” from their employer at the time of interview.
3. The prescribed qualification is minimum and mere fulfilling the minimum eligibility criteria mentioned herein may not entitle a candidate to be called for examination/ interview. Institute reserves the right to fix higher criteria for short-listing of applications for recruitment. Only shortlisted candidates will be called for Written Examination/Skill Test/Personal Interview depending upon the number of applicants.
4. The Institute reserves the right to consider to fill or not to fill the position and/or any other specialization(s). The Institute has the right to set different as well as higher norms, while short-listing, taking into account the specific requirement.
5. The Institute reserves the right to withdraw any advertised post(s) at any time without
assigning any reason thereof.
6. Relaxation in the upper age limit to the candidates belonging to Ex-Servicemen/PWD category (Divyaang)/Government employees/ departmental candidates will be given as per Government of India rules. Valid documents has to be submitted for it during the online application.
7. Relaxation in age, educational qualification and/or experience may be considered in case of exceptionally meritorious candidates.
8. The Institute reserves the right to assign/transfer the selected candidates to any
section/department within the Institute.
9. Persons who are appointed against the above post, will be covered under the National Pension
System as notified by the Government of India, Ministry of Finance.
10. This advertisement should not be construed as binding on NISER to make appointment.
11. No interim enquires / correspondence / communication of any sort will be entertained on the matter.
12. Canvassing in any form and / or bringing any influence, political or otherwise, will be treated as
a disqualification.
13. Examination/Interview etc. will be conducted at NISER campus, Jatni, Khurda, Odisha.
14. These posts are identified as suitable for PWD candidates (Divyaang) with Locomotive disability or Cerebral palsy under the category OA (One Arm affected), OL (One Leg affected), OAL (one Arm and One Leg affected), BL (Both Legs affected not arms) / HH (Hearing impaired) only.
15. Candidates are advised to visit NISER website and their registered email id from time to time for getting information regarding the recruitment process. Any information regarding this recruitment shall be uploaded on NISER website. Call letters shall be sent through the registered email id of shortlisted candidates only.
How to Apply:
i) Only ONLINE applications will be accepted. The applicants should apply online through the institute’s website https://www.niser.ac.in/ on or before 15th November 2021. Candidates are advised to check the above website for further details and updates.
ii) Before applying, candidates are requested to ensure that they fulfill the eligibility criteria for the post as on the date of eligibility. The on-line applications are purely provisional, subject to verification of details/original documents when the candidate reports for the written test/ computer skill test/interview.
iii) Before applying the candidate should ensure that he/she is fulfilling all the requisite qualifications and experiences if any.
iv) The candidate should have a valid email ID for applying, which should remain active till the end of the recruitment process.
v) The candidate should keep the following items ready before going to apply. a) Soft copy (JPG file) of passport size photograph of the candidate.
b) Scanned copy of Signature of the candidate.
c) Scanned copy of essential qualifications (Certificates and Mark sheets), experience certificates, caste certificate if applicable, age proof and other supporting documents if any.
vi) Candidates should apply ONLINE through the above mentioned website and upload the above
mentioned documents.
vii) No application fee is required to be paid by the candidates for this recruitment process. viii) Email-id for future correspondence is recruitmentcell@niser.ac.in
GROUNDS OF REJECTION:
• Application in any other mode except as described above.
• Application of candidate not fulfilling the eligibility criteria.
• Application without relevant copies of certificates, mark sheets, experience certificates, caste certificate if applicable, age proof and other supporting documents if any.
DISCLAIMER:
I. IN CASE IT IS DETECTED AT ANY STAGE OF RECRUITMENT THAT A CANDIDATE DOES NOT FULFIL THE ELIGIBILITY NORMS AND/OR THAT HE/SHE HAS FURNISHED ANY INCORRECT/FALSE INFORMATION OR HAS SUPPRESSED ANY MATERIAL FACT(S), HIS/HER CANDIDATURE WILL STAND CANCELLED. IF ANY OF THESE SHORTCOMINGS IS/ARE DETECTED EVEN AFTER APPOINTMENT, HIS/HER SERVICES ARE LIABLE TO BE TERMINATED.
II. DECISION OF NISER IN ALL MATTERS REGARDING ELIGIBILITY, CONDUCT OF EXAMINATION, OTHER TESTS AND SELECTION WOULD BE FINAL AND BINDING ON ALL CANDIDATES. NO REPRESENTATION OR CORRESPONDENCE WILL BE ENTERTAINED BY THE INSTITUTE IN THIS REGARD.
ANNOUNCEMENTS:
All further announcements/details pertaining to this recruitment process will only be published/provided on NISER website https://www.niser.ac.in/ from time to time.
DIRECTOR
Tuesday, May 4, 2021
Christianity and Islam
I. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words.
1. The birth place of Jesus Christ is
2. The place of Jesus’ crucification is
3. The birth place of Mohammad Paigamber is
4. The holy book of Islam is
5. The successors of Mohammad Paigambar are known as .
6. was the first Khalif.
7. Islam originated in
8. The holy book of Christianity is
Answer:- (1) Bethlehem (2) Golgotha (3) Mecca (4) Quran (5) Khalifs. (6) Aboobakar (7) Arabia (8) ‘Bible’
II. Discuss with your friends and write answers to the following Questions.
1. Write a note on the life of Jesus Christ.
• Jesus Christ was born into a poor family of
Joseph and Mary at Bethlehem village near
Jerusalem.
• He did not get proper education. Despite this he acquired a lot of religious knowledge.
• At the age of thirty he came under the influence of John Baptist and was baptized by him.
• He enlightened the people in distress by divine teachings and made them psychologically strong.
• This made him very popular among the people and he was known as a messiah or the saviour of the people.
• Gradually people considered him as a godly man. The priestly class of Jews opposed this.
• They complained against Jesus Christ to the governor of Roman Empire Pontius Pilate, charging him of treason.
• After the trial he was taken to Golgotha on a
Friday and crucified on the cross.
2. List the teachings of Jesus Christ.
Jesus Christ’s preachings are:
1. God is one and he is most merciful. He is the creator of entire creation.
2. Everyone should develop brotherhood feelings about others.
3. Loving the people in distress is equal to worshipping God.
4. One should serve others without expecting anything from them.
5. Serving people is equal to the worship of God.
6. If one repents for his mistakes God will forgive him.
7. Love your enemy. Do well to the people who try to harm you.
3. How did Christianity expand?
• After the crucifixion of Christ, his disciples were tortured. Some of them were crucified.
• During the time of Emperor Constantine, Christianity was adopted as the State Religion.
• Subsequently, Christianity spread throughout
Europe.
• Today, Christian Churches are found throughout the world and have a large number of followers.
4. Write a note on the life of Mohammad
Paigambar.
• The Mohammad Paigambar was born in 570
C.E at Mecca His parents were Abdulla and
Ameena.
• He lost his parents during his childhood and was brought up by his uncle.
• In Mecca he married widow Khadijah. They had two sons and four daughters.
• He started meditating deeply for long hours on
Mount Heera and he achieved enlightment.
• Soon, his principles became very popular among people. This known as ‘Quran’.
• When Paigambar opposed polytheism people of Mecca conspired to murder him.
• He travelled from Mecca to Madina when he became aware of this in C.E 622(Hijra).
• The people of Madina welcomed him, and they defeated the people of Mecca.
• Paigambar came back to Mecca. Finally they also became the followers of the religion propagated by Paigambar Gradually his principles spread all over the Arab region. Paigambar died in C.E 632.
5. What is Hijra?
When Paigambar opposed polytheism strongly,
the enraged people of Mecca conspired to murder him. He travelled from Mecca to Madina when he became aware of this in C.E 622. This incident is known as Hijra (the departure)
6. What are the teachings of Islam?
The teachings of Islam are-
1. God is one. A simple prayer is enough to win the heart of the God.
2. One should lead an honest and principled life and should keep away from all the bad habits.
3. One should have respect for women and compassion for the poor and weak.
7. Name the five important rituals of Islam.
Islam follows five important rituals.
1. Kalima – Belief only in Allah. Mohammad is
his prophet.
2. Namaz - Prayer for Allah for five times a day.
3. Roza- Fasting in the month of Ramazan.
4. Zakath- Definite sum to be spared in the income to give to the poor.
5. Haj - Pilgrimage to Mecca once in lifetime.
8. What are the main Contributions of Islam?
After accepting Islam, Arabs have been known
for the following contributions.
1. Medicine for Measles and other diseases and books on medicine.
2. New inventions in Science and Mathematics
3. The spread of knowledge built by Medieval
Arab and Persia in the field of Geography and
Astronomy to other parts of the world.
4. Islam influenced the art and architecture. The features of Islamic architecture can be seen in the buildings built in Roman, Byzantine and Persian empires.
9. Name the main sects in Islam.
The most important sects of Islam are Shia and
Sunni.
10. Name the main sects in Islam. Contributions of Christianity
1. Christianity has taught the noble principles of
peace and brotherhood to the world.
2. The educational centres established by Churches and missionaries have played a significant role in the growth of education.
3. Christianity has introduced the Gothic style in architecture.
4. Missionaries have extended health services all over the world.
5. Women and weaker sections have been largely benefitted by the education. This has brought qualitative changes in the society. It is known as empowerment.
11. Name the main sects in Islam.
The most important sects of Christianity are- 1) Catholics 2) Protestants.
Christianity and Islam
Christianity and Islam I. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words. 1. The birth place of Jesus Christ is 2. The place of Jesus’ crucif...
Intext Exercise 1
Question 1:
Which of the following are matter?
Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, cold drink, smell of perfume.
Solution 1:
Matter always occupies some space and mass. It can exist in 3 physical states:
• Solid,
• Liquid and
• Gas.
Matter Reason
Chair, almond Solid state of matter
Cold drink Liquid state of matter
Air, smell of perfume (perfume particles in
air) Gaseous states of matter
Love, hate, cold, smell and thought are sensations, so they are not considered as matter.
Question 2:
Give reasons for the following observation:
The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several metres away, but to get the smell from cold food you have to go close.
Solution 2:
The rate of diffusion increases with increase in temperature due to the increase in the kinetic energy of solid food particles diffused in air. The kinetic energy of hot food particles is high as compared to cold food. Thus, the smell of hot sizzling food reaches us even at a distance, but to get the smell from cold food you have to go close.
Question 3:
A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool. Which property of matter does this observation show?
Solution 3:
One of the characteristics of matter is particles of matter attract each other. The force of attraction between the particles is in the order:
Solid>Liquid> Gas
Thus, liquid particles have less force of attraction between them, so we can cut the force of attraction easily. And there is also space in between the particles of matter. That is why, a diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool.
Question 4:
What are the characteristics of particles of matter?
Solution 4:
Any matter has some characteristics like:
(i) Particles of matter have space between them. (ii) Particles of matter are continuously moving. (iii) Particles of mater attract each other.
Intext Exercise 2
Question 1:
The mass per unit volume of a substance is called density (density = mass/volume). Arrange the following in order of increasing density − air, exhaust from chimney, honey, water, chalk, cotton, and iron.
Solution 1:
The order of increasing density of the given matters is:
Air < Exhaust from chimney < Cotton < Water < Honey < Chalk < Iron
Question 2:
(a) Tabulate the differences in the characteristics of states of matter.
(b) Comment upon the following: rigidity, compressibility, fluidity, filling a gas container, shape, kinetic energy, and density.
Solution 2:
(a) The differences in the characteristics of states of matter:
S. No. Solid state Liquid state Gaseous state
1. It has definite shape and
volume. It has no definite shape, but
has definite volume.
Liquids attain the shape of the vessel in which they are kept. It neither has a definite
shape nor a definite volume.
2. It is incompressible It is compressible to a small
extent. It is highly
compressible.
3. The force of attraction between the particles of solids is highest. The force of attraction between liquid particles is less than solid particles but greater than gas particles. The force of attraction between the gaseous particles is least.
5. Particles of solid cannot
move freely. Liquid particles move
freely. Gaseous particles are in
a continuous and random motion.
(b) Rigidity: The tendency of matter to resist a change in shape.
Compressibility: The ability to reduce in volume when force is applied.
Fluidity: It is the ability of matter to flow. Only liquid and gases can flow and are called fluid.
Filling a gas container: Gases do not have definite shape and volume. Gases take the shape of the container in which filled. By filling a gas container, it means the attainment of shape of the container by the gas.
Shape: It means a definite boundary. Only solids have definite volume. Kinetic energy: The energy possessed by a particle due to its motion. Density: Mass per unit volume.
Question 3:
Give reasons:
(a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept. (b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container. (c) A wooden table should be called a solid.
(d) We can easily move our hand in air, but to do the same through a solid block of wood, we need a karate expert.
Solution 3:
(a) The gas particles move freely in all directions due to less force of attraction between the particles. Gas takes the shape of the container in which it is kept. Therefore, gas completely fills the vessel.
(b) The gas particles move freely in all directions due to less force of attraction between the particles. These gaseous particles continuously collide among themselves and they also hit the walls of the container with a greater force. Pressure is defined as the force exerted by the gas particles per unit area. Thus, gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container.
(c) A wooden table has a definite shape and volume. It is very rigid and its shape cannot be changed easily i.e., it has the characteristics of a solid. Hence, a wooden table should be considered as a solid.
(d) Air particles have large space in between them due to the least force of attraction between the particles. Whereas, wood has little space between the particles due to high force of attraction between the particles. Wood is rigid. For this reason, we can easily move our hands in air, but to do the same through a solid block of wood, we need a karate expert.
Question 4:
Liquids generally have lower density as compared to solids. But you must have observed that ice floats on water. Find out why.
Solution 4:
Density is mass per unit volume of a substance.
As the volume of a substance increases, its density decreases.
Though ice is a solid, it has large number of empty spaces in its structure.
These empty spaces are larger as compared to the spaces present between the particles of water. For this reason, the volume of ice is greater than that of water. Higher the volume, lesser will be the density. Hence, the density of ice is less than that of water.
Intext Exercise 3
Question 1:
Convert the following temperature to Celsius scale: (a) 300 K
(b) 573 K
Solution 1:
X °C = (X + 273) K
(a) 300 K = (300 −273) °C = 27°C (b) 573 K = (573 −273) °C= 300°C
Question 2:
What is the physical state of water at: (a) 250°C
(b) 100°C
Solution 2:
(a) Boiling point of water = 100°C, above this temperature water exists in gaseous state. Thus, water at 250°C exists in gaseous state.
(b) At 100°C, water exists in both liquid and gaseous states.
Question 3:
For any substance, why does the temperature remain constant during the change of state?
Solution 3:
During a change of state, the temperature remains constant. This is because all the heat supplied to increase the temperature, is utilised to supply latent heat of vapourisation which does not contribute to increase the temperature of the substance.
Question 4:
Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.
Solution 4:
Atmospheric gases can be liquefied by applying pressure and reducing the temperature. Intext Exercise 4
Question 1:
Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day?
Solution 1:
During evaporation, the liquid particles absorb energy from the surroundings which causes the cooling effect. The rate of evaporation depends on the amount of water vapour present in air or humidity. If the amount of water vapour present in air is less, then rate of evaporation will be more. On a hot dry day, the amount of water vapour present in air is less. Thus, water present inside the desert cooler evaporates rapidly, and it cools the surroundings more easily. Therefore, a desert cooler cools better on a hot dry day.
Question 2:
How does water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool during summers?
Solution 2:
An earthen pot consists of many tiny pores through which the liquid inside the pot
evaporates. That makes the water inside the pot cool. In this way, water kept in an earthen pot became cool during summers.
Question 3:
Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it?
Solution 3:
Organic compounds like acetone or petrol or perfume are volatile in nature. When we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on our palm, it evaporates. During evaporation, particles of these organic liquids absorb energy from the surroundings or the surface of the palm
making the surroundings or surface of the palm cool. Hence, our palm feels cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it.
Question 4:
Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer than a cup?
Solution 4:
Hot tea or milk has a larger surface area in a saucer than in a cup. Rate of evaporation is faster in case of greater surface area. Thus, the liquid cools faster in a saucer than in a cup. For this reason, we are able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer than a cup.
Question 5:
What type of clothes should we wear in summers?
Solution 5:
In summer, we should wear cotton clothes because cotton clothes can absorb more sweat from our body and exposes the liquid to the atmosphere, making evaporation faster. During this evaporation, particles on the surface of the liquid gain energy from our body surface, making the body cool.
NCERT Exercise
Question 1:
Convert the following temperatures to Celsius scale. (a) 300 K
(b) 573 K Solution 1: K= – 273°C
(a) 300 K = (300 − 273) °C = 27 °C
(b) 573 K = (573 − 273) °C = 300 °C
Question 2:
Convert the following temperatures to Kelvin scale. (a) 25°C
(b) 373°C
Solution 2:
0°C = 273 K
(a) 25 °C = (25 + 273) K = 298 K (b) 373°C = (373 + 273) K= 646 K
Question 3:
Give reason for the following observations.
(a) Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid. (b) We can get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away. Solution 3:
(a) Few substances undergo sublimation easily at room temperature. Such as naphthalene balls changes state from solid to gas takes place easily. Thus, naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid.
(b) Gaseous particles possess high kinetic energy. Particles of perfume diffuse into these gaseous particles at a very faster rate and reach to our nose. This enables us to smell the perfume from a distance.
Question 4:
Arrange the following substances in increasing order of forces of attraction between particles
− water, sugar, oxygen.
Solution 4:
The increasing order of forces of attraction between particles of matter is: Solid>Liquid>Gas
Water = Liquid, Sugar = Solid, Oxygen = Gas.
Thus, the increasing order of forces of attraction between the particles of water, sugar and oxygen is
Oxygen < Water < Sugar
Question 5:
What is the physical state of water at: (a) 25°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 100°C
Solution 5:
(a) Melting point of water = 0°C
At 25°C, water exists in the liquid state.
(b) At 0 °C, water can exist as both solid and liquid. At this temperature, ice starts changing into its liquid form i.e., water.
(c) Boiling point of water =100 °C. At 100 °C, water can exist as both liquid and gas. At this temperature, water starts changing from its liquid state to its gaseous state, i.e., water vapours/steam.
Question 6:
Give two reasons to justify:
(a) water at room temperature is a liquid.
(b) an iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.
Solution 6:
(a) At room temperature (25 °C), water is a liquid due to few characteristics of liquid, such as:
(i) Water has no shape but has a fixed volume. It takes the shape of the container in which it is kept.
(ii) Water can flow.
(b) An iron almirah is a solid at room temperature (25 °C) due to few characteristics of solid: (i) it has a definite shape and volume like a solid.
(ii) it is rigid as solid.
Question 7:
Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature?
Solution 7:
Both ice and water are at same temperature 273 K. But ice at 273 K has less energy than
water because water possesses the additional energy of latent heat of fusion. Hence, at 273 K, ice is more effective in cooling than water.
Question 8:
What produces more severe burns, boiling water or steam?
Solution 8:
Both steam and water are at same temperature 373 K. But steam has more energy than boiling water because it possesses the additional energy of latent heat of vapourisation. Therefore, steam produces more severe burns than boiling water.
Question 9:
Name A, B, C, D, E and F in the following diagram showing change in its state.
inyatrust May 04, 2021 CB Blogger Indonesia
9th std science chapter 1 notes in english version 2020-21
Intext Exercise 1 Question 1: Which of the following are matter? Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, cold drink, smell of...
Chapter 13 – Why Do We Fall Ill
State any two conditions essential for good health.
Solution:
Two conditions essential for good health are:
● A person should have better health facilities to deal with problems.
● Basic necessary conditions to stop diseases must be present.
Question 2:
State any two conditions essential for being free of disease.
Solution:
The two conditions essential for being free of diseases are:
● Personal hygiene and cleanliness.
● Eating balanced diet and nutritious food.
Question 1:
List any three reasons why you would think that you are sick and ought to see a doctor. If only one of these symptoms were present, would you still go to the doctor? Why or why not? Solution:
Headache, stomach pain, nausea, vomiting, fever, etc., are the symptoms that make us feel that we are sick and must visit a doctor. It will be difficult for us to predict the kind of disease and end up visiting the doctor so that the disease can be treated with proper medication.
However, if only one of these symptoms is present, we usually do not visit a doctor. This is because such symptoms do not have much effect on our general health and ability to work. However, if a person is experiencing these symptoms for quite regularly, then he needs to visit a doctor for proper treatment because that may be a symptom of severe disease.
Question 2:
In which of the following case do you think the long-term effects on your health are likely to be most unpleasant?
a. If you get jaundice, b. If you get lice,
c. If you get acne. Why?
Solution:
If we get jaundice it will be most unpleasant as it is a chronic disease and can cause long-term effects on our health. Lice and acne can be cured by using medicated shampoo and proper cleanliness respectively.
Question 1:
Why we are normally advised to take bland and nourishing food when we are sick?
Solution:
When we are sick our body will be weak, by consuming bland and nourishing food we can get the nutrients and energy quickly to fight the disease-causing agents. Oil and spices will be difficult to digest because our metabolic system is weak.
Question 2:
What are the different means by which infectious diseases are spread?
Solution:
● Diseases can be spread through various means such as air, water, sexual contact, blood and vector.
● Through air - This occurs through the little droplets thrown out by an infected person who sneezes or coughs. For example, tuberculosis, pneumonia, etc. spread through the air.
● Through water - This occurs if the excreta from someone suffering from an infectious gut disease, such as cholera, get mixed with the drinking water used by people living nearby.
● Through physical contact - Sexual act is one of the closest physical contact two people
can have with each other.
● Blood transfusion - Certain diseases such as AIDS can spread via the blood to blood contact during a blood transfusion or pregnancy.
● Through vectors - Diseases can spread through vectors. For example, mosquitoes spread
malaria.
Question 3:
What precautions can you take in your school to reduce the incidence of infectious diseases?
Solution:
● Cover mouth or nose while sneezing.
● To make sure that water is not stagnant to avoid the breeding of mosquitoes.
● Drinking filtered or purified water to avoid the spread of water-borne diseases.
Question 4:
What is immunization?
Solution:
Immunization is a process of protecting the body from communicable diseases by administration of the agent that mimics the microbe.
Question 5:
What are the immunization programmes available at the nearest health centre in your locality? Which of these diseases are the major health problems in your area?
Solution:
The immunization programmes available are DPT, polio vaccine, Hepatitis B, MMR, jaundice, typhoid, etc.
(Answers may vary)
Question 1:
How many times did you fall ill in the last year? What were the illnesses?
a. Think of one change you could make in your habits in order to avoid any of /most of the above illnesses.
b. Think of one change you would wish for in your surroundings in order to avoid any of/most of the above illnesses.
Solution:
(Answer may vary)
It depends on the immunity system of the individual. Few might fall ill several times in a year whereas others do not fall ill at all.
Illness may be fever, cold and cough etc. a. Eating fresh and healthy food.
b. Drinking boiled water.
Question 2:
A doctor/nurse/health-worker is exposed to more sick people than others in the community. Find out how she/he avoids getting sick herself/himself.
Solution:
● Keeping themselves covered while moving around an infected place.
● Wearing a mask and gloves when in contact with an infected person.
● Eating healthy and nutritious food.
● Ensuring proper cleanliness and personal hygiene.
Question 3:
Conduct a survey in your neighbourhood to find out what the three most common diseases are. Suggest three steps that could be taken by your local authorities to bring down the incidence of these diseases.
Solution:
Three most common diseases are Dengue, Typhoid, Jaundice. etc. Steps to be taken to bring down the incidence of these diseases are:
● Proper disposal of garbage
● Proper maintenance of open sewage system and canals.
● Ensuring the supply of safe drinking water.
● Providing a clean environment and preventing mosquitoes from breeding.
Question 4:
A baby is not able to tell her/his caretakers that she/he is sick. What would help us to find out
(a) That the baby is sick? (b) What is the sickness? Solution:
(a) Sickness can be determined by the behavioural changes of the baby.
(b) Sickness can be symptoms or indications which include vomiting, fever, loose motion, paleness in the body, etc.
Question 5:
Under which of the following conditions is a person most likely to fall sick? (a) When she is recovering from malaria.
(b) When she has recovered from malaria and is taking care of someone suffering from chicken-
pox.
(c) When she is on a four-day fast after recovering from malaria and is taking care of someone suffering from chicken-pox. Why?
Solution:
In condition ‘C’ a person is more likely to fall sick. This is because she is fasting during recovery, and her immune system is so weak that it is not able to protect its own body from any foreign infection. If that person is taking care of someone suffering from chickenpox, then she has more chances of getting infected from the chickenpox virus and will get sick again with this disease.
Question 6:
Under which of the following conditions are you most likely to fall sick? (a) When you are taking examinations.
(b) When you have travelled by bus and train for two days. (c) When your friend is suffering from measles.
Why?
Solution:
A person is more likely to fall sick in situation “C”. This is because measles is highly communicable disease and can easily spread through air. Thus, if your friend is suffering from measles, stay away from him otherwise you might easily get infected w
9th std science why do we fall ill notes in english version 2020-21
Chapter 13 – Why Do We Fall Ill State any two conditions essential for good health. Solution: Two conditions essential for good health are...
Chapter 7 – Diversity in Living Organisms
Question 1:
Why do we classify organisms?
Solution:
As there are many organisms on the earth, it is important to know them. Diversity is not only between different organisms but also between different individuals of the same species. So, it will be very difficult to study each of the 30 million species one by one. Scientists, therefore, felt the need of grouping different species based on some observable similar characters. Classification of related organisms helps in the identification and study of their evolutionary relationships.
Question 2:
Give three examples of the range of variations that you see in life-forms around you.
Solution:
Examples observed in daily life are:
● Size of the different organisms which is seen from bacteria to giant trees.
● Colour, texture of the skin, size, shape and other characteristics in animals are completely different from each other.
● Mode of nutrition in animals and plants are completely different
Question 3:
Which do you think is a more basic characteristic for classifying organisms? (a) The place where they live.
(b) The kind of cells they are made of. Why?
Solution:
The kind of cells that living organisms are made up of is a more basic characteristic for classifying organisms, rather than based on their habitat. Organisms can be classified into - Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes A eukaryotic cell has membrane-bound organelles, including a nucleus, which allows cellular processes to be carried out efficiently in isolation from each other. Organisms which do not have a clearly demarcated nucleus and other organelles would need to have their biochemical pathways organised in very different ways.
Question 2:
What is the primary characteristic on which the broad division of organisms is made?
Solution:
The primary characteristic on which the broad division of organisms is made is the nature of the cell. It is considered to be the basic characteristic for dividing all living organisms. Nature of the cell includes the presence or absence of membrane-bound organelles. Therefore, on the basis of this fundamental characteristic, we can classify all living organisms into two broad
categories of eukaryotes and prokaryotes. Then, further classification is made on the basis of cellularity or modes of nutrition.
Question 3:
On what basis are plants and animals put into different categories?
Solution:
Plants and animals differ in many features such as the absence of chloroplasts, the presence of cell wall, etc. But, mode of nutrition is considered as the characteristic feature that separates animals from plants. They can be classified into - Heterotrophs (Animals) and Autotrophs (plants). Being able to produce one’s own food versus having to get food from outside would make very different body designs.
Qustion 1:
Which organisms are called primitive and how are they different from the so-called advanced organisms?
Solution:
When we connect the idea of evolution to classification, we find two groups of organisms. The first group has few organisms that have not changed much for e.g., lice and the duck- billed platypus. Whereas the second group has organisms which have acquired particular body designs by accumulating changes over a period of time. Those in the first group are frequently referred to as primitive or lower organisms, while those in the second group are called advanced or higher organisms.
Question 2:
Will advanced organisms be the same as complex organisms? Why?
Solution:
There might be a possibility that complexity in design will increase over evolutionary time, it may not be wrong to say that older organisms are simpler, while younger organisms are more complex.
Question 1:
What is the criterion for classification of organisms as belonging to kingdom Monera or
Protista?
Solution:
The criterion for the classification of organisms belonging to kingdom Monera or Protista is the presence or absence of a well-defined nucleus or membrane-bound organelles. Kingdom Monera includes organisms that do not have a well-defined nucleus or membrane-bound organelles and these are known as prokaryotes. Kingdom Protista, on the other hand, includes organisms with a well-defined nucleus and membrane-bound organelles and these organisms are called eukaryotes.
Question 2:
In which kingdom will you place an organism which is single-celled, eukaryotic and photosynthetic?
Solution:
Kingdom Protista
Question 3:
In the hierarchy of classification, which grouping will have the smallest number of organisms with a maximum of characteristics in common and which will have the largest number of organisms?
Solution:
A species will have the smallest number of organisms with a maximum of characteristics in common, whereas the kingdom will have the largest number of organisms.
Question 1:
Which division among plants has the simplest organisms?
Solution:
Thallophyta has the simplest organisms as this includes plants, which do not contain a well- differentiated plant body. Their body is not differentiated into roots, stems, and leaves
Question 2:
How are pteridophytes different from the phanerogams?
Solution:
Pteridophyta Phanerogams
Less differentiated reproductive organs. Well developed reproductive organs.
They produce naked embryos called spores. They produce seeds.
Example: Ferns, Marsilea, Equisetum, etc. Example: Pinus, Cycas, fir, etc.
Question 3:
How do gymnosperms and angiosperms differ from each other?
Solution:
Gymnosperm Angiosperm
Non-flowering plants Flowering plants
Naked seeds are present Seeds are enclosed inside fruits.
Pinus, Cedar, fir, Cycas, etc. are some
examples of gymnosperms. Coconut, palm, mango, etc. are some
examples of angiosperms.
Questio 1:
How do poriferan animals differ from coelenterate animals?
Solution:
Porifera Coelenterate
Mostly marine, nonmotile, and found
attached to rocks. Exclusively marine animals which either
live in colonies or have a solitary lifespan.
Cellular level of organisation. Tissue level of organisation.
Examples: Spongilla, Euplectella, etc. Examples: Hydra, sea anemone, corals, etc.
Question 2:
How do annelid animals differ from arthropods?
Solution:
Annelids Arthropods
Annelids have closed circulatory system Arthropods have an open circulatory system
The body is divided into several identical
segments. The body is divided into a few specialized
segments.
Ring like segments Jointed legs
Question 3:
What are the differences between amphibians and reptiles?
Solution:
Amphibian Reptiles
They can live both on land and water. They are completely terrestrial.
Scales are absent. Skin is covered with scales.
They lay eggs in water. They lay eggs on land.
It includes frogs, toads, and salamanders. It includes lizards, snakes, turtles,
chameleons, etc.
Question 4:
What are the differences between animals belonging to the Aves group and those in the mammalia group?
Solution:
Aves Mammals
Most birds have feathers They do not have feathers
They possess beak or bill. The beak is absent.
They lay eggs. Hence, they are oviparous. Some of them lay eggs and some give birth
to young ones. Hence, they are both oviparous and viviparous.
Mammary glands are absent They have mammary glands
Question 1:
What are the advantages of classifying organisms?
Solution:
As there are many organisms on the earth, it is important to know them. The diversity is not only between different organisms but also between different individuals of the same organism. So, it will be very difficult to study each of the 30 million species one by one. Scientists, therefore, felt the need of grouping different species based on some observable similar characters. Classification of related organisms helps in the identification and study of their evolutionary relationships.
Question 2:
How would you choose between two characteristics to be used for developing a hierarchy in classification?
Solution:
For developing a hierarchy of classification, we choose the fundamental characteristic among several other characteristics. We can classify the organism based on different characteristics. Characteristics may be a particular form or function. The basic classification can be done based on the nucleus which is prokaryotes and eukaryotes. The second to be considered for classification can be a number of cells - unicellular and multicellular.
Question 3:
Explain the basis for grouping organisms into five kingdoms.
Solution:
There were many classifications done based on different characteristics of organisms. Out of all, the classification done by R.H Whittaker (1969) is accepted and widely used even today. The classification Whittaker proposed has five kingdoms: Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia. The five-kingdom classification is done on cell structure, mode and source of nutrition and body organisation.
Question 4:
What are the major divisions in the Plantae? What is the basis for these divisions?
Solution:
The major divisions in kingdom Plantae are Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, Gymnosperms, and Angiosperms.
The classification depends on the following criteria:
● Differentiated or undifferentiated plant body
● Presence or absence of vascular tissues
● With or without seeds
● Naked seeds or seeds inside fruits
Question 5:
How are the criteria for deciding divisions in plants different from the criteria for deciding the subgroups among animals?
Solution:
Criteria for deciding divisions in plants are based on - Differentiated or Undifferentiated plant body, presence or absence of vascular tissues, with or without seeds and naked seeds or seeds inside fruits whereas in animals it is broadly based on presence or absence of a notochord.
Question 6:
Explain how animals in Vertebrata are classified into further subgroups.
Solution:
Animals in Vertebrata are classified into six classes - Cyclostomata, Pisces, Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia. Vertebrata is further classified into subgroups based on the exoskeleton, nature of the heart, respiration organs, reproduction, mode of living etc.
9th std science diversity in living organisams2020-21
Chapter 7 – Diversity in Living Organisms Question 1: Why do we classify organisms? Solution: As there are many organisms on the earth, it ...
Monday, May 3, 2021
Prepared By
Ehthashamuddin. J. Sheikh, M.A., M.ED, IIST
# 116, T.K.A.R Building, G. Block, Champion Reef’s (P.O), Kolar Gold Fields, Kolar District, Karnataka State.
Mobile Number: - 9738483214
Poem: - 4
The Wonderful Words
Mary O’ Neill
I. Four alternatives are given. Choose the best alternative: -
1) The words what we speak reflect …………..
A] Our inner strength B] thoughts
C] Our brightest thoughts D] our desires
2) Never let a ………. shrivel and die.
A] desire B] thought C] word D] wonderful word
3) ………….. is a wonderful game.
A] Kannada B] Hindi C] English D] Telugu
4) Shrivel means ………..
A] dry up B] clean up C] grasp D] move
5) We match the words with ……….. in our head.
A] Strength B] brightest thoughts
C] desires D] thoughts
6) Words are the food and dress of …………
A] strength B] thoughts C] gracefully D] angrily
7) ………. can free a thought.
A] desire B] strength C] love D] words
8) Groom means …………..
A] dry up B] clean up C] wrinkle D] waste away
9) Longing means ………..
A] hear B] desire C] hard D] better
10) Never let a thought shrivel and ………….
A] disappear B] good C] die D] near
11) The words that we speak reflects our own ………..
A] courage B] personality C] truth D] kindness
12) Our thoughts are prisoned behind our ………….
A] heart B] head C] eyes D] mind
II. Answer the following questions:-
1. Why should we not let our thoughts to die?
Ans.: We should not let our thoughts die because we can free our thoughts by matching the words in a wonderful game like English. Therefore, that it blooms to feed the many loveliest things.
2. What do our words reflect?
Ans.: The words that we speak reflect our inner strength and one’s own personality.
3. How do our thoughts come out clear and true?
Ans.: We match the words to the brightest thoughts in our mind. So that they come out clear and true and handsomely groomed and fed to many loveliest things.
4. How do many of the loveliest things are fed?
Ans.: We get the brightest thoughts in our head by matching the word to get it in a clear and true manner. So, that they grooms handsomely and fed for many of the loveliest things.
5. Which is the wonderful game and why?
Ans.: Poet says the never to let a thought shrivel and die. For want of a way to say, it for that
English is the wonderful game that all can play it.
6. What does we match and how?
Ans.: We match the words with the brightest thoughts in our head. So, that they come out clear and true and handsomely groomed.
7. What does the people are logging to hear?
Ans.: Words are the food and dress of thoughts. They give it its body and swing and everyone is logging today to hear some fresh and beautiful things.
8. What do the words bring out?
Ans.: The words are powered which we speak bring out our thoughts. We have to match the words with our brightest thoughts.
9. What is mean by ‘They give it its body and swing’?
Ans.: Words give the life to our thoughts. They give proper shape and movement to our thoughts that touch the heart of people.
10. According to poet what can free a thought?
Ans.: According to the poet, words can free a thought from its prison behind our eyes.
III Read each of the following extracts and answer the questions given below:
1. “English is a wonderful game”
a. Who said this?
Ans.: Mary O’ Neill said this.
b. Why did she say so?
Ans.: We can express our thoughts with the help of words. By beautiful words we speak, we can bring out our thoughts. Therefore, the poet says English is a wonderful game through this we can bring out our thoughts easily.
2. “All that you do is match the words”
a. Who does ‘You’ refer to? Ans.: ‘You’ refers to the readers.
b. Why do we match the words?
Ans.: We match the words to get brightest and clear thoughts that we are willing to say. So that they come clear and true, which others can understand?
3. “Words are the food and dress of thoughts”
a. Who said this?
Ans.: Poet Mary O’Neill said this.
b. What do we understand by this line?
Ans.: Words give the life to our thoughts they give proper shape and movement to our thoughts, which touch the heart of the people.
4. “Words can free a thought”
a. Who said this?
Ans.: Poet Mary O’Neill said this.
b. Why only words can free a thought?
Ans.: Words can free the thoughts from its prison behind our eyes. Because we can express our thoughts with the help of words so only words can free a thoughts.
5. “A Marvelous new surprise!”
a. To who was it said.
Ans.: It is said to the readers.
b. How does a marvelous surprise can be free from our mind?
Ans.: Our mind is holding a marvelous new surprise. It is prisoned behind our eyes. Through words, we can free the thoughts from our mind
**********
9th SLE The Wonderful words (Poem)_NoRestriction
Prepared By Ehthashamuddin. J. Sheikh, M.A., M.ED, IIST # 116, T.K.A.R Building, G. Block, Champion Reef’s (P.O), Kolar Gold Fields, Kolar ...
I. Four alternatives are given. Choose the best alternative: -
1) …………….. Makes Sun shines every day.
A] Power of God B] Courage C] Pride D] Dharma
2) Drowsy means ……….
A] Extremely sad B] Sleepy C] Notice D] Fell - Down
3) Happiness is ……….
A] Desire B] Change C] Result of good conduct D] Learning
4) Yudhistira choose ………. to revive.
A] Nakula B] Sahadeva C] Arjuna D] Bhima
5) In Mahabharatha, the Pandavas lost everything in the game of ……..
A] Chees B] Dice C] Cricket D] War
6) Birth and learning do not make one a …………
A] Man B] Brahman C] Yaksha D] Yudhistira
7) Arjuna was a ……….
A] Angry man B] Foolish C] Great strength D] Great Hero
8) According to Yudhistira the friend of one who stays at home is ……..
A] Son B] Wife C] Daughter D] God
9) Nakula was …… when he got to the place and saw there was a pool.
A] Thirsty B] Glad C] Happy D] Surprised
10) Nakula dip his hand in the …………. water.
A] Fresh B] Clear C] Transparent D] Salty
11) Arjuna compelled him towards the …………
A] Magic B] Fatal C] Fresh water D] Salty water
12) After another anxious wait, Yudhistira turned to ………..
A] Arjuna B] Sahadeva C] Bhima D] Nakula
13) ……….. Rescues man in danger.
A] Courage B] Mind C] The power of God D] Dharma
14) ……….. is faster than wind.
A] Thoughts B] Anger C] Desire D] Mind
15) …….. befriends a traveller.
A] Mother B] Learning C] Dharma D] The wife
16) ……… for abandoning that man will be loved by all.
A] Pride B] Anger C] Desire D] Dharma
17) Anger giving it up, use will no longer be subjected to ………
A] Desire B] Wealth C] Sorrow D] Happiness
18) Desire getting rid of it, man becomes ……….
A] Pride B] Wealthy C] Happy D] Noble
19) Woud – Complexioned, lotus – eyed, Broad – chested and long armed ……. May arise
A] Bhima B] Nakula C] Arjuna D] Sahadeva
20) Bhima has the strength of …….. Thousand elephants.
A] Fifteen B] Sixteen C] Twenty D] Fourteen
21) According to Yudhistira mind is faster than ………
A] Rain B] Wind C] Water D] Current
22) ………. Is most dear to Yudhistira.
A] Arjuna B] Nakula C] Shadeva D] Bhima
23) The pool belongs to ………
A] Ganesha B] Krishna C] Yaksha D] Yudhistira
24) Pandavas excile was for …….. years.
A] Twelve B] Thirteen C] Ten D] Five
25) Nakula was the son of……….
A] Kunthi B] Yudhistira C] Madri D] Arjuna
26) Yudhistira saw a …… way of redeeming the situation.
A] Easy B] Possible C] Excellent D] Impossible
27) Yaksha had taken the form of………. to check the Pandavas brothers.
A] Pool B] arrows C] deer D] lion
II. Answer the following questions:-
1. Why did Pandavas grew more and more weary and thirsty?
Ans.: The Pandavas brothers wandered deep into the forest in pursuit of a deer. The sun was hot overhead and the five brothers grew more and more weary and thirsty.
2. Why did Nakula felt terribly drowsy?
Ans.: Nakula was very thirsty. He wanted to quench his thirst first so he did not heed the warning of unseen voice. He knelt down and began to drink water. At once, he began to feel terribly drowsy and he fell down.
3. How did Arjuna react when he see his brother lying dead?
Ans.: Yudhistira sent Arjuna to see whether the brothers had met with any danger. Arjuna went swiftly. He saw his brothers lying dead near the pool. Heart – broken with grief, he wanted to avenge their death.
4. Why did Yudhistira sent Arjuna to see whether the brothers had met with any danger? Ans.: When Nakula did not return for a long time, Yudhistira sent Sahadeva to see what the matter was. Sahadeva also ignored the warning; he drank the water at once dropped down. When Sahadeva too failed to return. Yudhistira sent Arjuna to see whether the brothers had met with any danger.
5. Why did Invisible voice laughed at Arjuna?
Ans.: Arjuna became very angry by hearing the voice of invisible being. Arjuna cried ‘Who are you? Come and stand up to me and I will kill you”. He shot sharp arrow in the direction of the voice. So the invisible being laughed in scorn and said’ Your arrow can’t touch me’.
6. Why did Yudhistira said the unseen voice to ask his questions.
Ans.: Yudhistira saw his brothers lying on the ground. The unseen voice warned Yudhistira. He knew that these could be none other than the words of Yaksha and guessed what had happened to his brothers. He saw a possible way of redeeming the situations. So, he said to the bodiless voice
‘Please ask your questions’.
7. What makes one a real Brahman?
Ans.: Birth and learning do not make one a Brahman good conduct alone does. However learned person may be, he will not be Brahman of he is a slave to bad habits.
8. Whom did Yudhistira wanted to revived? Why?
Ans.: Yudhistira wanted to revive Nakula. Because Kunti and Madri were the two wives of his father. Yudhistira was son of Kunti and he is alive so she is not completely bereaved so to be fair. Yudhistira asked the Madri’s son Nakula to revive.
9. How did Yudhistira described Nakula?
Ans.: Yudhistira described Nakula as woud – complexioned, lotus – eyed, broad – chested and long armed Nakula, lying like a fallen enbony tree.
10. Why did Yaksha granted all Yudhistira’s brothers would come back to life?
Ans.: Because Yaksha was pleased with Yudhistira’s impartiality and granted that all his brothers would come back to life.
11. Why did Yaksha took the form of deer?
Ans.: Yaksha, the lord of Death had taken the form of the deer and Yaksha so that he might see his son Yudhistira and test him. He embraced Yudhistira and blessed him.
12. Why did Pandavas live in forest for twelve years?
Ans.: Because Pandavas lost everything in the game of dice to the Kauravas and they had to live in forest for twelve years.
13. What is the greatest wonder in the world?
Ans.: Every day man sees creatures depart to Yama abode and yet those who remain seek to live forever.
14. Who were the Pandavas?
Ans.: The Pandavas were five brothers who had lost everything to their cousins the Kauravas in a game of dice. They had to live in exile for twelve years.
15. Who was Yaksha? Why did he take the form of dear?
Ans.: Yaksha was the ‘Lord of Death’. He had taken the form of dear. Because only a few days remained to complete the stipulated period of Pandavas exile in the forest. Therefore, he wanted to test them.
16. Why do you think Yaksha asked Yudhistira for a boon?
Ans.: Yaksha told Yudhistira the one of his dead brothers would be revived, whom he wanted to revived. He would come back to life. It was the choice that Yaksha gave Yudhistira when he answered all the questions.
17. Why did Yudhistira went near the pool?
Ans.: Because his four brothers had not returned for a long time by this he puzzled and worried of his brothers. Therefore, he went near the pool.
18. Why the Pandavas had to live in forest?
Ans.: Pandavas lost everything in the game of dice to the Kauravas and had to live in forest for
Twelve years.
19. Why Pandavas brothers wandered deep into the forest?
Ans.: During their stipulate period of exile, Pandavas had to constantly move from place to place for safety and to meet their daily needs. One day in the twelfth years, the Pandavas brothers wandered deep into the forest in pursuit of a deer.
20. If you were in the place of Arjuna, how would you react to the invisible voice? Justify your answer.
Ans.: If I was in the place of Arjuna, even I might have reacted in the same way. Because Arjuna was very thirsty and wanted to avenge his brother’s death. Therefore, he came out of his patience and followed his brothers.
III Read each of the following extracts and answer the questions given below:
1. “At a little distance I see water plants and cranes”
a. Who said this? Ans.: Nakula said this.
b. Why did he say this?
Ans.: Because the Pandavas were thirsty and Yudhistira asked Nakula to climb the tree and see, whether there is any pool or river nearby.
2. “Stop! Nakula! Do not drink”
a. Who said this? Ans.: Yaksha said this.
b. Why did he say so?
Ans.: Because the unseen voice has to test the Pandavas. Therefore, the unseen voice asked
Nakula to answer his questions before drinking water.
3. “Answer my questions before you drink the water”
a. Whom does ‘You’ refer to? Ans.: ‘You’ refers to Arjuna.
b. How did he react to this?
Ans.: Arjuna became very angry, by hearing this words and he shot sharp arrow in the direction of the voice.
4. “Who are you? Come and stand up to me and I will kill you”
a. Who said this? Ans.: Arjuna said this.
b. How did the unseen voice react to this?
Ans.: Arjuna shot sharp arrow in the direction of the voice. The invisible being laughed in scorn and said ‘Your arrows can’t touch me’
5. “Your arrows can’t touch me” a. Whom does ‘Me’ refer to? Ans.: ‘Me’ refers to Yaksha.
b. What did Arjuna do after listening to this?
Ans.: Arjuna wanted to destroy this unseen foe, but first he had to quench his terrible thirst. Therefore, he drank water and fell down dead.
6. “Dear brother, even Arjuna, the great hero hasn’t returned”
a. Who said this?
Ans.: Yudhistira said this.
b. Why did he say this?
Ans.: Yudhistira anxiously waited for Arjuna and Nakula. However, they did not return for long time. Yudhistira thought that something to his brothers.
7. “Please! Find them quickly”
a. Who said this?
Ans.: Yudhistira said this
b. Why did he want to find them quickly?
Ans.: Because Nakula, Sahadeva and Arjuna had not returned for a long time, he thought something had happened wrong and he sends Bhima to find them.
8. “Your brothers died because they did not heed my words”
a. Who said this? Ans.: Yaksha said this.
b. What was the warning given to brothers?
Ans.: Yaksha gave warning to the brothers that they must, answer is questions before they drink the water.
9. “Please ask your questions”
a. Who said this?
Ans.: Yudhistira said this.
b. Why did he say so?
Ans.: Yudhistira knew that the unseen voice is none other than Yaksha. He saw a possible way to redeeming the Yudhistira.
10. “Who accompanies a man in death?”
a. Who said this?
Ans.: Yudhistira said this.
b. What is the answer to this question?
Ans.: The answer to this question is Dharma that alone accompanies the soul in the solitary journey after death.
11. “None of your enemies will be able to discover you”
a. Whom does ‘You’ refer to? Ans.: ‘You’ refers to Yudhistir
b. Where was he at that time?
Ans.: Yaksha was at the pool in the forest with Yudhistira
****
9th SLE The Enchanted Pool (Prose)_NoRestriction
I. Four alternatives are given. Choose the best alternative: - 1) …………….. Makes Sun shines every day. A] Power of God B] Courage ...
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